Which of the following statements regarding parenteral medications is correct

hypoerfusion of the cell body

Circular muscular walls that regulate blood flow through the capillaries

One of the primary waste products of normal cellular metabolism that must be removed from the body by the lung is 

When the body senses a state of hypoperfusion, the sympathetic nervous system releases epinephrine, the effects of which include:

When perfusion to the core of the body decreases:

Blood is shunted away from the skin

The term "pharmacology" is MOST accurately define as:

The study of drugs and their action on the body

A medication with antagonistic properties is one that

blocks receptor sites and prevents other chemicals from attaching to them 

A drug is contraindicated for patient when it:

May cause harm or have no positive effect

After taking diphendydramine (Benadryl) for an allergic reaction, a person begins experiencing drowsiness and a dry mouth. These findings are an example of a(n)

Which of the following is an example of brand (trade) name of a drug?

Advil, Nuprin, Motrin are brand (trade) names for the generic medication:

which of the following is an example of a drug's generic name?

which of the following statements regarding parenteral medications is correct?

Parenteral medications are absorbed more quickly than enteral medications.

Which of the following is MOST rapidly acting medication administration route?

which of the following medication routes has the slowest rate of absorption?

Which of the following medication routes would be the MOST appropriate to use in an unconscious patient when intravenous access cannot be obtained?

subcutaneous injections deliver the medication:

between the skin and the muscle

While assisting a paramedic in the attempted resuscitation of a 55 y/o male in cardiac arrest, you should expect the paramedic to:

administer drug via the IV route to achieve the fastest effect.

Which of the following medication route delivers a drug through the skin over an extend period of time, such as a nitroglycerin or nicotine patch? 

A mucosal atomizer device (MAD) is used to deliver certain medications via the:

The _____ of a medication usually dictates the route by which it will be administered.

Medication encased in a gelatin shell taken by mouth are called:

Which of the following statement regarding the metered dose inhaler (MDI) is correct?

An MDI delivers the same amount of medication every time it is used.

You are dispatched to a movie theater for a 39 y/o female with signs and symptoms of an allergic reaction. As you are assessing her, she pulls an epinephrine auto-injector out of her purse and hands it to you. After administering 100% oxygen, you should:

An EMT administer aspirin to a patient if:

authorization from medical control has been obtained

You are treating a middle aged man with chest discomfort. He has a history of three previous heart attack and takes nitroglycerin as needed for chest pain. You have standing order to administer aspirin to patients with suspected cardiac related chest pain or discomfort. While your partner is preparing to give oxygen to patient, you should:

Confirm that the patient is not allergic to aspirin, give him the appropriate dose of aspirin, and document the time and dose given 

In _______ administration, you are administering medication to yourself or your partner 

A 74 y/o women complains of heaviness in her chest, nausea, and sweating that suddenly began about an hour ago. She is conscious and alert, but anxious. Her blood pressure is 144/84 mm Hg and her heart rate is 110 beats/min. She took two of her prescribed nitroglycerin (o.4-mg tablets) before your arrival but still feels heaviness in her chest. you should:

Recall that geriatric patients often have slower absorption and elimination times, which may necessitate modification of the dosing of certain drugs.

The process of binding or sticking to a surface is called 

you arrive at a residence approximately 20 minutes after a 7 y/o boy, who weighs 22 kg, ingested a bottle of Advil. he is conscious and alert and has stable vital signs. Medical control orders you to administer activated charcoal and oxygen and then transport the child at once. The appropriate maximum dose of activated charcoal for this child is:

Activated charcoal is frequently suspended in sorbitol, a complex sugar that

facilitates movement through the digestive system

Which of the following statement regarding glucose is correct?

Glucose is a simple sugar that readily absorbed by the bloodstream

Aspirin is beneficial to patient suspected of having a heart attack because it 

Prevents the aggregation of platelets 

Shortly after assisting a 65 y/o female with her prescribed nitroglycerin, she begins complaining of dizziness and experiences a drop of 30 mm Hg in her systolic blood pressure. The patient remain conscious and her breathing is adequate. You should;

Place her supine and elevate her legs

A 62 y/o male presents with crushing chest pain, which he describes as being the same kind of pain that he had with a previous heart attack. He has prescribed nitroglycerin but states that he has not taken any. After administering 100% oxygen and contracting medical control, you should:

assist him with his nitroglycerin unless his systolic blood pressure is less than 100 mm Hg

You are treating a 45 y/o women who was stung by a hornet and has a rash. She tells you that she is allergic to hornets and has her own epinephrine auto injector. She also tells you that she takes medication for hypertension. Her breath sounds do not reveal any wheezing, her breathing is unlabored, and her blood pressure is 154/94 mm Hg. What should you do if you are unable to contract medical control?

Give her oxygen, transport her to the hospital, and monitor her condition en route

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of epinephrine?

decreases heart rate and blood pressure 

Which of the following statement regarding the epinephrine auto injector is correct?

The epinephrine auto injector delivers a preset amount of drugs.

With the flowmeter set a 6 L/min , the nasal cannula will deliver up to ____ oxygen.

A 37 y/o male is found unconscious in his car. His airway is patent and his respiration are rapid and labored. As you and your partner are assessing and treating the patient, a police officer hands you a medication named Alupent, which he found in the backseat of the patient's car. this medication suggests that the patient has a history of:

When assessing an elderly male who complains of nausea and generalized weakness, you find that he takes simvastatin (Vytorin) and clopidogrel (plavix). This medication regimen suggests a history of 

Basic life support (BLS) is define as 

noninvasive emergency care that is used to treat conditions such as airway obstruction, respirator arrest, and cardiac arrest

After ___ minutes without oxygen, brain damage is likely.

After establishing that an adult patient is unresponsive, you should:

Which of the following is NOT a BLS intervention?

Most prehospital cardiac arrest occurs as the result of

Which of the following statements regarding ventricular fibrillation (V-fib) is MOST correct

Survival rate decrease by 7% to 10 % for each minute that V-fib persists.

You and your partner arrive at side of a 60 y/o woman who suddenly collapsed about 7 minutes ago. She is unresponsive, apneic, and pulseless. You should:

Perform cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) for about 2 minutes and the apply the AED

Which of the following statement regarding the use of the AED in children is MOST correct?

ADs use in children between 1 and 8 years of age involves pediatric pads and an energy reducer.

You have assessed an unresponsive middle aged female and determined that she is in cardiac arrest. When you apply the AED pads, you note that she has a medication patch over the same area where one of the AED pads will be placed. you should:

Remove the medication patch, wipe away any medication residue, and apply the AED pads.

Which of the following maneuvers should be used to open a patient's airway when a spinal injury is suspected?

Several attempts to adequately open a trauma patient's airway with the jaw thrust maneuver have been unsuccessful. You should 

Carefully perform the head tilt chin lift 

A patient should be place in the recovery position when he or she:

is unconscious,  uninjured, and breathing adequately.

what percentage of exhaled oxygen is delivered during mouth to mask breathing without supplemental oxygen? 

when ventilating an apneic adult with a simple barrie device, you should deliver each breath:

While watching for adequate chest rise.

If gastric distention is interfering with your ability to adequately ventilate a patient, you may have to:

apply manual pressure to the abdomen

CPR will NOT effective if the patient is

you should deliver chest compression to an unconscious adult patient in cardiac arrest by:

compressing the sternum between the nipples

Complications associated with chest compression include all of the following, EXCEPT

A 60 y/o male found to be unresponsive, pulse less and apneic. You should

begin CPR until an AED is available

To ensure that you will deliver the appropriate number of chest compression during one rescuer adult CPR, you should compress the patient's chest at a rate of about __ per minute

In two rescuer adult CPR, you should deliver a compression to ventilation ratio of 

After the patient's air way is intubated during two rescuer CPR, you should:

deliver one rescue breath every 6 to 8 seconds.

During two rescuer CPR, the compressor and ventilator switch positions. While rescuer one is finishing his or her cycle of 30 minute compression, rescuer two should:

move to opposite of the patient's chest 

The impedance threshold device (ITD) may improve circulation during CPR by:

limiting the amount of air that enters the lungs during the recoil phase between chest compression  which results in negative intrathoracic pressure and improved cardiac filling.

The main benefit of using a mechanical piston or load distributing band device for chest compression is:

the elimination of rescuer fatigue that result from manual compression

In most cases, cardiopulmonary arrest in infants and children is cause by:

An apneic infant or child should be ventilated a maximum of ____times per minute.

the proper depth of chest compression on a 9 month old infant is 

one third to one half the diameter of the chest

What is the minimum number of chest compression that should be delivered per minute

when assessing the pulse of an unresponsive infant, you should palpate the _____.

What is the correct ratio of compression to ventilation when performing two rescuer child CPR?

When performing CPR on a child, you should compress the chest 

Which of the following is considered an obvious sign of death and would not require the initiation of CPR?

CPR should be initiated when:

a valid living will is unavailable.

Which of the following is not an indication to stop CPR once you have started?

Care is transferred to a bystander.

The MOST appropriate treatment for a patient with a mild upper airway obstruction includes:

administering oxygen and transporting immediately 

Signs of a sudden sever upper airway obstruction include all of the following,EXCEPT:

Which of the following techniques should you use to dislodge a foreign body airway obstruction in a patient who is in an advanced stage of pregnancy or who is very obese?

Your initial attempt to ventilate an unresponsive apneic 30 y/o man is met with resistance and you do not see the chest rise. Your second ventilation attempt is also unsuccessful. you should;

perform 30 chest compression

Initial treatment to dislodge a severe foreign body airway obstruction in a responsive infant involves

In contrast to the assessment of a trauma patient, assessment of a medical patient:

is focused on the nature of illness, the patient's chief complaint, and his or her symptoms. 

Which of the following conditions is NOT categorized as a psychiatric condition?

The greatest danger in displaying a personal bias or "labeling" a patient who frequently call EMS is 

overlooking a potentially serious medical condition

An index of suspicion is most accurately define as 

your awareness and concern for potentially serious underlying and unseen injuries or illness.

you and your EMT partner arrive at the residence of a 50 y/o man who complains of weakness. You primary assessment reveals that he is critically ill and will require aggressive treatment. The closest hospital is 25 miles away. You should 

manage all threats to airway, breathing and circulation and consider requesting an ALS unit.

When forming your general impression of a patient with a medical complaint, it is important to remember that

the conditions of many medical patients may not appear serious at first

Upon initial contact with a patient who appears to be unconscious, you should:

attempt to elicit a verbal response by talking to the patient.

Your primary assessment of an elderly women reveals that she is conscious and alert, but is experiencing difficulty breathing. She has a history of emphysema, hypertension, and congestive heart failure. As you assess the patient's circulatory status, you should direct your partner to

administer oxygen with appropriate device

When assessing a patient with a medical complaint, which of the following would MOST likely reveals the cause of his or her problem

which of the following will MOST reliably allow you to determine the nature of a patient's illness?

asking questions related to the chief complaint

A 58 y/o man complains of chest discomfort and nausea. He is conscious and alert; his blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg, his pulse is 104 beats/min, and his respiration are 16 breaths/min. Your partner has applied supplemental oxygen. Prior to assisting the patient with one of his prescribed nitroglycerin tablets, you ask him if he takes medication to treat erectile dysfunction and he tells you that he does. You should:

ask him what he takes, how much, and when he last took it.

When caring for a patient who takes numerous medications, it is best to

take all of the patient's medication with you to the hospital and document them on your patient care report.

The secondary assessment of a medical patient:

is not practical if the patient is critically ill or your transport time is short

You have just completed you primary assessment of a 48 y/o man crushing chest pain. The patient has been given 324 mg of aspirin and is receiving high flow oxygen via nonrebreathing mask. As you begin your secondary assessment, you note that his mental status has deteriorated and he is now bradycardic. You should:

prepare the patient for immediate transport

When performing a secondary assessment on a conscious patient with nontraumatic abdominal pain and stable vital sighs, you should:

focus on his or her chief complaint 

It is especially important to assess pulse, sensation and movement in all extremities as well as pupillary reactions in patients with a suspected ______problem.

Which of the following assessment finding is MOST indicative of a cardiovascular problem?

A 33 y/o female presents with lower abdominal quadrant pain. She is conscious and alert, but in moderate pain. While your partner is asking her questions about her medical history, you take her vital signs. When you assess her radial pulse, you are unable to locate it. You should:

assess the rate, regularity and quality of carotid 

End tidal carbon dioxide (ETCO2) monitoring is clearly indicated for patients who present with:

Reassessment of a patient with a medical complaint should begin by:

repeat primary assessment

The primary prehospital treatment for most medical emergencies:

address the patient's symptoms more that the actual disease process

Which of the following medications would the EMT LEAST likely administer to a patient with a medical complaint?

When caring for a patient with an altered mental status and signs of circulatory compromise, you should:

limit your time at the scene to 10 minutes or less, if possible 

The determination of whether a medical patient is a high priority or low priority transport is typically made: 

after the primary assessment has been completed.

In which of the following situations would it be MOST appropriate to utilize an air medical transportation service?

61 y/o man with signs and symptoms of a stroke and your ground transport time is 50 minutes.

Which of the following conditions often requires transport to a hospital with specialized capabilities that may not be available at the closest hospital?

After sizing up the scene of a patient with a possible infectious disease, your next priority should be to:

take standard precautions.

Typical chief complaints in patients with an infectious disease include: 

fever, rash, nausea, and difficulty breathing.

In addition to obtaining a SAMPLE history and asking questions related to the chief complaint, what else should you inquire about when assessing a patient with a potentially infectious disease?

An infectious disease is MOST accurately define as 

a medical condition caused by growth and spread of small harmful organisms within the body

Which of the following statements regarding the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is correct?

The risk of HIV infection is greatest when deposited on a mucous membrane or directly into the bloodstream.

blood-borne disease that can successfully be treated with penicillin.

Early signs and symptoms of viral hepatitis include all of the following, EXCEPT:

jaundica and abdominal pain.

Which of the following statement regarding hepatitis A is correct? 

Hepatitis A can only be transmitted by a patient who has an acute infection.

Hepatitis B is more virulent than hepatitis C, which means that it:

has a greater ability to produce disease 

A patient who presents with a headache, fever, confusion, and blotches on his or her skin should be suspected of having:

Patient with tuberculosis pose the greatest risk for transmitting the disease when they:

In contrast to viral hepatitis, toxin induced hepatitis:

is not a communicable disease.

Ten days after treating a 34 y/o patient with tuberculosis, you are given a tuberculin skin test, which yield a positive result. This MOST likely indicates that:

you were exposed to another infected person prior to treating the 34 y/o patient

Which of the following statement regarding methicillin resistant staphylococcus aureus (MARSA) is correct?

MRSA is a a bacterium that causes infections and is resistant to most antibiotics.

Factors that increase the risk for developing methicillin resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) include:

prolonged hospitalization, especially in an intensive care unit.

A patient who was bitten by a mosquito and present with signs and symptoms of illness should be suspected of having:

Which of the following statement regarding severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS) is correct?

SARS is caused by a virus and usually start with flu-like symptoms that deteriorate to pneumonia and respiratory failure. 

Which of the following statement regarding the H1N1 virus is correct?

It is only one type of influenza among the many other strains of influenza that exist and infect humans.

Deoxygenated blood from the body returns to the 

Blood that is ejected from the right ventricle: 

flows into the pulmonary arteries. 

which of the following blood vessels transports oxygenated blood?

what is the function of the left atrium?

It receives oxygenated blood from the lungs

the left ventricle has the thickest wall because it;

pumps blood into the aorta and systemic circulation .

The electrical pulse generated by the heart originates in the: 

When an electrical pulse reaches the AV node, it is slowed for a brief period of time so that:

blood can pass from atria to ventricles

The ability of cardiac muscle cells to contract spontaneously without a stimulus from a nerve source is called:

The electrical stimulus that originates in the heart's primary pacemaker is controlled by impulses from the brain that arrive by way of the;

Which of the following is NOT a function of the sympathetic nervous system?

constriction of the blood vessels in the muscles 

In contrast to the sympathetic nervous system, the parasympathetic nervous system

slows the heart and respiratory rates.

The myocardium receives oxygenated blood from the ____, which originate(s) from the ____.

Which of the following would cause the greatest increase in cardiac output?

increased heart rate and increased stroke volume

The right coronary artery supplies blood to the:

right ventricle and inferior wall of the left ventricle 

The head and brain receive their supply of oxygenated blood from the :

The descending aorta divides into the two iliac arteries at the level of the:

Which of the following veins is located inferior to the trunk?

The iliac arteries immediately subdivide into the 

The inferior vena cava returns deoxygenated blood tot he right side of the heart from all of the following areas, EXCEPT the:

Which of the following is the MOST reliable method of estimating a patient's cardiac output?

Assess the heart rate and strength of the pulse.

Cardiac output may decrease if the heart beats too rapidly because:

there is not enough time in between contraction for the heart to refill completely.

When afterload increases:

it became harder for the ventricle to push blood through the blood vessels.

The posterior tibial pulse can be palpated;

behind the medial malleolus 

Ischemic heart disease is MOST accurately define as:

decreased blood flow due to a blocked coronary artery 

Narrowing of the coronary arteries due to a buildup of fatty deposits is called: